[Soliloquy]

Originally Posted by kiloyd

I know what you are talking about. It's annoying. I'm good with "fishers of men" not fishers of people.

I'd better make up my mind and order one because I want to give it as a gift to dd in a couple weeks.

What matters is whether the original language used a gender natural term or a gender specific term.

Also, the use of idioms matters. "A one woman man" was an idiom used for both men and women who were faithful spouses. It was found on the tombs of faithful wives. So, it is not incorrect to translate that as what it means, a faithful spouse. It is incorrect to translate it in a way that leads the reader to believe the passage is referring only to men/husbands.

This is done is many other places in the Bible as long as it doesn't infringe on patriarchy.